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ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Most Reliable Questions, ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Reliable Test Dumps
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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q13-Q18):
NEW QUESTION # 13
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?
- A. Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers
- B. The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents
- C. The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
- D. The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases
Answer: B
Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?
- A. Level 2
- B. Level 3
- C. Level 5
- D. Level 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which activity of the 'release model development and improvement' process is used to standardize the preparation of release instances?
- A. Product architecture and service relationship analysis
- B. Release management approach review and development
- C. Release model review and development
- D. Release execution
Answer: C
Explanation:
The release model development and improvement process aims to create and refine standardizedmodels for releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains:"Release model review and development involves defining and standardizing the structure, contents, and schedule of releases to ensure consistency in the preparation of release instances"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Release management approach review and development) focuses on the overall practice approach, not specifically the preparation of release instances.
* Option B (Release model review and development) directly addresses standardizing the preparation of release instances by defining repeatable models.
* Option C (Product architecture and service relationship analysis) is a supporting activity to understand dependencies, not to standardize release preparation.
* Option D (Release execution) is the process of deploying a release, not developing or standardizing models.
The correct answer is B, as it directly relates to standardizing release preparation through model development.
NEW QUESTION # 16
A new release manager wants to explain to the organization's service consumers the purpose of a new release management practice. What should the release manager say to the service consumers to help them realize the value of release management?
- A. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to reduce business losses.
- B. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to users to mitigate the service provider's risks.
- C. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to enable them to perform tests.
- D. The release management practice will ensure the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The purpose of the release management practice in ITIL 4 is to make new and changed services and features available for use by ensuring a controlled and efficient release process. According to theITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument, the purpose is defined as:"The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use"(Section 2.1). This focuses on delivering value to service consumers by enabling them to use improved or new services quickly and effectively.
* Option A focuses on the service operations team performing tests, which is part of the release process but not the primary value perceived by service consumers.
* Option B mentions reducing business losses for the operations team, which is an internal benefit, not a direct value for consumers.
* Option C aligns directly with the purpose: "the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available" reflects the consumer-facing value of release management- ensuring they can benefit from new or improved services promptly.
* Option D focuses on mitigating the service provider's risks, which is a provider-centric benefit, not a consumer-focused value statement.
Thus, the correct answer is C, as it directly addresses the value to service consumers by emphasizing the availability and usability of improved services, aligning with the ITIL 4 definition of release management's purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?
- A. A 'pull' approach
- B. Continuous delivery
- C. Continuous integration
- D. A 'push' approach
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 18
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